Return - Entire thread - Last 10 posts

Travel Through a Black Hole (19)


18 Name: Anonymous Scientist : 2011-07-05 12:44 ID:a7zGPjiY

Yes! This is rather well explained here:

http://www.mathpages.com/rr/s7-03/7-03.htm

Having discussed the prospects for hovering near a black hole, let's review the process by which an object may actually fall through an event horizon. If we program a space probe to fall freely until reaching some randomly selected point outside the horizon and then accelerate back out along a symmetrical outward path, there is no finite limit on how far into the future the probe might return. This sometimes strikes people as paradoxical, because it implies that the in-falling probe must, in some sense, pass through all of external time before crossing the horizon, and in fact it does, if by "time" we mean the extrapolated surfaces of simultaneity for an external observer. However, those surfaces are not well-behaved in the vicinity of a black hole. It's helpful to look at a drawing like this:

[drawing]

This illustrates schematically how the analytically continued surfaces of simultaneity for external observers are arranged outside the event horizon of a black hole, and how the in-falling object's worldline crosses (intersects with) every timeslice of the outside world prior to entering a region beyond the last outside timeslice. The timeslices can be modeled crudely as simple "right" hyperbolic branches of the form tj - T = 2m ln(r/2m – 1) so T is the (inward) Eddington-Finkelstein time coordinate. We just repeat this same shape, shifted vertically, up to infinity. Notice that all of these infinitely many time slices curve down and approach the same asymptote on the left. To get to the "last timeslice" an object must go infinitely far in the vertical direction, but only finitely far in the horizontal (leftward) direction.

This also brings up Greg Egan's "Planck Dive" short story:

http://gregegan.customer.netspace.net.au/PLANCK/Complete/Planck.html

With Applets and everything