[Contentless] ITT you post right now [ASAP] your current thought [Brains][Thinking][Personal][#48] (999)

359 Name: ((●)トェェェイ(●)) : 1993-09-11251 10:57

I was reading about a serial killer on Wikipedia and encountered the phrase "the victim was raped post-mortem".

It immediately made me stop and think: can a dead body really be "raped"? Corpses can't consent, but the very concept of consent is also inapplicable to them, because they're not alive. It's like saying that someone raped a fleshlight or a sex doll.

What's your take on this important issue, dokyuns?

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